1. All of the following are causes of sudden painless loss of vision except:
A. Central retinal artery occlusion
B. Optic atrophy
C. Optic neuritis
D. Retinal detachment
2. Sudden, transient and painless loss of vision may be complained by the patients with all of the following diseases except:
A. Carotid transient ischaemic attacks
B. Papilloedema
C. Papillitis
D. Migraine
3. All of the following may be associated with nightblindness except:
A. Pathological myopia
B. Retinitis pigmentosa
C. Retinitis punctata albescens
D. Retinitis proliferans
4. Flashes of light before the eyes (photopsia) is a feature of:
A. Impending retinal detachment
B. Vitreous traction of the retina
C. Retinitis
D. All of the above
5. Snellen’s test types are based on the fact that two distant points can be visible as separate only when they subtend at the nodal point of the eye an angle of:
A. 1 minute
B. 3 minute
C. 5 minute
D. 2 minute
6. Assessment of the visual acuity in children below 2 years of age can be made by the following tests, except:
A. Landolt’s charts
B. Pattern visual evoked potential
C. Preferential looking behaviour
D. Optokinetic nystagmus
7. In microcornea, diameter of cornea is less than:
A. 9 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 11 mm
D. 8 mm
8. Corneal diameter is increased in:
A. Megalocornea
B. Keratoglobus
C. Keratoconus
D. All of the above
9. Diseased and devitalized epithelial cells of the conjunctiva and cornea are stained with:
A. Fluorescein dye
B. Rose Bengal dye
C. Alcian blue dye
D. All of the above
10. Corneal sensations are decreased in all of the following conditions except:
A. Recurrent corneal erosion syndrome
B. Herpetic keratitis
C. Neuroparalytic keratitis
D. Leprosy
11. The aqueous flare is best demonstrated by:
A. Biomicroscope
B. Keratoscope
C. Pentoscope
D. Ophthalmoscope
12. Photostress test is positive in:
A. Central serous retinopathy
B. Optic neuritis
C. Ethambutol toxicity
D. Central retinal artery occlusion
E. All of the above
13. Indentation tonometer is based on the fundamental fact that a plunger with indent:
A. More in soft eye
B. More in hard eye
C. Equal in soft and hard eye
D. None of the above
14. All of the following conditions can be diagnosed on distant direct ophthalmoscopy except:
A. Opacities in the refractive media
B. A hole in the iris
C. A detached retina
D. A hole in the macula
15. All of the following are characteristics of the image formed on direct ophthalmoscopy, except that it is:
A. Erect
B. Real
C. Fifteen times magnified in emmetropes
D. More magnified in myopes than emmetropes
16. In indirect ophthalmoscopy the examining eye is made:
A. Myopic
B. Hypermetropic
C. Emmetropic
D. None of the above
17. All of the following are characteristics of the image formed on indirect ophthalmoscopy except that it is:
A. Virtual
B. Inverted
C. Magnified
D. Formed between the convex lens and the observer
18. Biomicroscopic examination of the fundus is performed with the help of:
A. –58.6 D Hruby lens
B. +78 D small diameter lens
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
19. Small opacities in the media of the eye are best detected by:
A. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy
B. Direct ophthalmoscopy
C. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
D. All of the above
20. Diameter of the optic disc is:
A. 1.5 mm
B. 5.5 mm
C. 2.5 mm
D. 3.5 mm
21. The normal extent of temporal field of vision for white colour is about:
A. 60°
B. 80°
C. 90°
D. 110°
22. In colour perimetry the smallest field of vision is with:
A. Green object
B. Blue object
C. Yellow object
D. Red object
23. Campimetry (Scotometry) is performed in the visual field area of:
A. 50°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90°
24. Dark adaptation is delayed in all of the following conditions except:
A. Pigmentary retinal dystrophy
B. Vitamin A deficiency
C. Primary open-angle glaucoma
D. Heredomacular degeneration
25. In electroretinogram (ERG) the b-wave represents the activity of:
A. Rods and cones
B. Bipolar cells
C. Ganglion cells
D. All of the above
26. In diagnosis of retinitis pigmentosa ERG is:
A. More sensitive than the EOG
B. Less sensitive than the EOG
C. Equally sensitive as EOG
D. None of the above
27. Visually-evoked response (VER) is useful in the diagnosis of all of the following except:
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Retrobulbar neuritis
C. Visual potential in eyes with opaque media
D. Optic atrophy
28. For biometric studies of the eyeball best pulse echo technique on ultrasonography is:
A. A Scan
B. B Scan
C. C Scan
D. All of the above
29. Kayser-Fleischer ring is pathognomonic of:
A. Keratoconus
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Lowe’s syndrome
D. All of the above
30. Roth’s spots are seen in:
A. Diabetic retinopathy
B Chorioretinitis
C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
D. Retinoblastoma
31. Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex is seen in:
A. Papilloedema
B. Papillitis
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
32. Thickness of cornea is best measured by:
A. Keratometer
B. Pachymeter
C. Optometer
D. Pentoscope
33. Landolt’s broken ring test is used for testing:
A. Form sense
B. Contrast sense
C. Central field
D. Scotopic vision
34. White pupillary reflex is seen in:
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Complete retinal detachment
C. Endophthalmitis
D. All of the above
35. The image in indirect ophthalmoscopy is:
A. Erect, virtual, magnified
B. Erect, real, magnified
C. Inverted, real, magnified
D. Inverted, virtual, normal
36. Examination of vitreous is best done by:
A. Direct ophthalmoscope
B. Indirect ophthalmoscope
C. Slit-lamp with contact lens
D. Oblique illumination
37. In retinal artery angiogram, the dye is injected through the:
A. Peripheral veins
B. Aorta
C. Retinal artery
D. Retinal vein
38. The distance used in distant direct ophthalmoscopy is:
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 25 cm
D. 100 cm
39. Amaurotic cat’s eye is not seen in:
A. Cataract
B. Cyclitic membrane
C. Glaucoma
D. Retrolental fibroplasia
40. Angiography is the investigation of choice in:
A. Posterior vitreous detachment
B. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
C. Retinoschisis
D. Central serous retinopathy
41. Periphery of retina is best visualised with:
A. Retinoscopy
B. USG
C. Direct ophthalmoscopy
D. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
42. Campimetry is used to measure:
A. Squint
B. Angle of deviation
C. Pattern of retina
D. Field charting
43. The electroretinogram may assist in the diagnosis of all of the following, except:
A. Bilateral disease
B. Progression of retinal disease
C. Clinically unsuspected disease in familial degenerations
D. Complications of glaucoma
E. Differentiation between peripheral and central retinal disease
44. Anomaloscope is used to detect:
A. Squint
B. Retinopathy
C. Congenital glaucoma
D. Colour blindness
45. Best diagnostic test for Best disease is:
A. Dark adaptation
B. ERG
C. EOG
D. Gonioscopy
46. Snellen’s chart is used to test:
A. Vision
B. Refraction
C. Presbyopia
D. Colour blindness
47. Retinoscopy is used for visualising the:
A. Whole retina
B. Only the peripheral part of the retina
C. Detecting errors of refraction
D. None
48. Magnification of direct ophthalmoscopy is:
A. Five
B. Ten
C. Fifteen
D. Thirty
49. Amsler’s grid is used in:
A. Detecting colour vision
B. Retinal function test
C. Maculopathy
D. Refractive errors
50. Not true about macular function test is:
A. Two-point discrimination
B. Maddox rod
C. Laser interferometry
D. Retinogram
51. All are seen in increased intracranial tension except:
A. Macular oedema
B. Papilloedema
C. Normal vision
D. Afferent pupillary defect
52. Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia:
A. Nd: YAG laser
B. Excimer laser
C. Argon laser
D. Holmium laser
53. Visual acuity test is a test of:
A. Light sense
B. Colour sense
C. Contrast sense
D. Form sense
54. Hutchinson’s pupils:
A. Seen in syphilis
B. Unilateral constricted pupil
C. Irregular pupil
D. None of the above
55. In retinoscopy for refractive error at 1m we add–1D. If done at a distance of 66 cm, the addition factor will be:
A. –2D
B. –1.5 D
C. –0.5 D
D. –5 D
56. Shallow anterior chamber is seen in all except:
A. Old age
B. Steroid induced cataract
C. Hypermetropia
D. Angle-closure glaucoma
57. Optical coherence tomography is akin to in vivo:
A. Histopathology
B. Ultrasonic biomicroscopy
C. Confocal microscopy
D. Roentgen examination
58. Axial resolution in optical coherence tomography is about:
A. 10 µ
B. 30 µ
C. 100 µ
D. 300 µ
59. Optical coherence tomography is most useful in disorders of:
A. Macula
B. Crystalline lens
C. Refractive errors
D. Intraocular tumours
60. Area of fundus seen with direct ophthalmoscope is
A. 1 DD
B. 2 DD
C. 3 DD
D. 4 DD
61. Indocyanine green angiography (ICG Angiography) is most useful in detecting:
A. Occult choroidal neovascularization (Occult CNV)
B. Classic choroidal neovascularization (Classic CNV)
C. Angioid streaks with choroidal neovascularization (CNV)
D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
62. A wave in ERG is due to activity of:
A. Pigmented epithelium
B. Rods and cones
C. Ganglion cell
D. Bipolar cell
63. Arden index is related to:
A. ERG (Electroretinogram)
B. EOG (Electroculogram)
C. VER (Visual evoked response)
D. Perimetry
64. Perimetry is a test to assess the:
A. Visual acuity
B. Intraocular pressure
C. Visual field
D. Depth of the anterior chamber