MCQ on Neuro Ophthalmology for optometrist and ophthalmologist
1. Process of dark adaptation involves:
A. Rods of retina
B. Cones of retina
C. Pigment epithelium of retina
D. Both rods and cones
2. Visual acuity is a measure of:
A. Light sense
B. Form sense
C. Contrast sense
D. All of the above
3. Bitemporal hemianopia is associated with lesions of the:
A. Optic tract
B. Central chiasma
C. Lateral parts of chiasma
D. Optic radiations
4. Homonymous hemianopia with sparing of pupillary reflexes is a feature of lesions of:
A. Optic radiations
B. Visual cortex
C. Geniculate body
D. All of the above
5. Homonymous hemianopia with usually sparing of the macula is seen in lesions of:
A. Geniculate body
B. Optic radiations
C. Visual cortex
D. All of the above
6. Wernicke’s heminopic pupillary reaction indicates lesions at the level of:
A. Optic tract
B. Distal part of optic nerve
C. Optic chiasma
D. Optic radiations
7. Marcus Gunn pupil is a feature of:
A. Optic neuritis
B. Papilledema
C. Ciliary ganglion lesions
D. Lesion of Edinger-Westphal nucleus
8. Argyll Robertson Pupil results from the lesion of:
A. Accessory ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Tectum region
D. Lateral geniculate body
9. All of the following are true for the Adie’s Tonic Pupil except:
A. Light reflex is present
B. Near reflex is very slow and tonic
C. It is usually unilateral
D. The affected pupil is larger
10. Pupil is small in all of the following except:
A. During sleep
B. Adie’s pupil
C. Argyll Robertson pupil
D. Pontine haemorrhage
11. Pupil is spared in:
A. Riley-Day syndrome
B. Disseminated sclerosis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Horner’s syndrome
12. The most common field defect in papillitis is:
A. A relative central or centrocaecal scotoma
B. Enlargement of the blind spot
C. Tubular vision
D. Multiple small peripheral scotomas
13. Bilateral centrocaecal scotoma more marked with red than white colour is a feature of:
A. Tobacco amblyopia
B. Leber’s disease
C. Papilledema
D. Quinine amblyopia
14. Basic lesion in tobacco amblyopia is:
A. Degeneration of ganglion cells especially of macular region
B. Degeneration of foveal cones
C. Ischaemia of optic nerve fibres
D. All of the above
15. Typical field defect observed in anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy is:
A. Altitudinal hemianopia
B. Paracentral scotoma
C. Homonymous hemianopia
D. Baring of the blind spot
16. Tumours most common to cause early papilledema arise from:
A. Cerebellum
B. Mid brain
C. Parieto-occipital region
D. All of the above
17. Occlusion of short posterior ciliary arteries may cause:
A. Ischaemic optic neuropathy
B. Posterior segment ischaemia
C. Anterior segment ischaemia
D. All of the above
18. Pseudo-Foster-Kennedy syndrome is characterised by all except:
A. It is associated with raised intracranial pressure
B. The culprit tumour causes optic atrophy on one side and papilloedema on the other side
C. It may be associated with pseudotumour cerebri
D. It needs to be differentiated from tumours arising from the orbital surface of frontal lobe
19. All of the following signs may be appreciated in a patient with early papilloedema except:
A. Obscuration of superior, inferior and nasal disc margins
B. Absence of spontaneous venous pulsation
C. Mild hyperaemia of the disc
D. Obliteration of physiological cup of the optic disc
20. The most important factor on which development of papilloedema depends in intracranial tumours is:
A. Site of tumour
B. Size of tumour
C. Nature of tumour
D. Rate of growth of tumour
21. Tumours arising from all of the following structures can induce papilloedema except:
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Cerebrum
C. Olfactory groove
D. Orbital surface of frontal lobe
22. In optic atrophy pallor of the disc is an index of:
A. Degeneration of optic nerve fibres
B. Loss of vascularty of the disc
C. Demyelination of the optic nerve fibres
D. All of the above
23. Congenital colour blindness is transmitted as:
A. Recessive disorder
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Sex-linked disorder
D. All of the above
24. Acquired blue blindness is a feature of:
A. Increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens
B. Disease of optic nerve
C. Disease of macula
D. All of the above
25. Amaurosis fugax may occur in all of the following conditions except:
A. Papilloedema
B. Papillitis
C. Giant cell arteritis
D. Raynaud’s disease
26. Spiral field defect is a feature of:
A. Amblyopia exanopsia
B. Hysterical amblyopia
C. Malingering
D. Toxic amblyopia
27. In uraemic amaurosis the pupils are:
A. Constricted
B. Dilated and don’t react to light
C. Normal
D. Dilated but react to light
28. In optic neuritis the best investigation to be done includes:
A. Goldman perimetery
B. Keratoscopy
C. Ophthalmoscopy
D. Opthalmodynamometery
29. Normal visual acuity of 6/6 is achieved by the age of:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 7 years
30. In fundus, first sign of raised intracranial pressure is:
A. Filling of physiological cup
B. Blurring of nasal disc
C. Dilatation of vessels
D. None of the above
31. M o n o c u l a r d i p l o p i a w i t h h o m o ny m o u s hemianopia originates in the:
A. Geniculate body
B. Calcarine cortex
C. Parietal lobe
D. Temporal lobe
E. Tip of occipital lobe
32. Pupillary reflex is lost in:
A. Optic neuritis
B. Glaucoma
C. Iridocyclitis
D. Adie’s pupil
33. Features of papilloedema include all except:
A. May be due to intracranial haemorrhage
B. Disc becomes elevated
C. Cotton wool spots may be seen
D. Vision is impaired
34. Which is incorrect of papilloedema:
A. Disc edema
B. Transient blurring of vision
C. Sudden painless loss of vision
D. Vascular engorgement
35. Functional assessment of optic nerve is by:
A. Angiography
B. Fundoscopy
C. Perimetry
D. CT Scan
36. Defect in amblyopia lies in:
A. Lateral geniculate body
B. Afferent pupillary reflex
C. Rods and cones
D. Retina
37. Pupil that responds to convergence but light reflex is absent:
A. Adies pupil
B. Argyl Robertson pupil
C. Hutchison pupil
D. Wernicke’s pupil
38. Macula is
A. Optic nerve
B. Optic tract
C. Periodic bluring of vision
D. Constant blinking
39. An optic nerve injury may result in all of the following except:
A. Loss of vision in that eye
B. Dilatation of pupil
C. Ptosis
D. Loss of light reflex
40. Bitemporal hemianopia can be due to:
A. Third ventricle tumour
B. Meningioma of sella diaphragmatica
C. Calcarine cortex infarction
D. Aneurysm of basilar artery
41. Homonymous hemianopia is seen in:
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Optic nerve damage
C. Post-chiasmic damage
D. All of the above
42. Pituitary tumour causes:
A. Binasal hemianopia
B. Homonymous hemianopia
C. Monocular blindness
D. Bitemporal hemianopia
43. Psychogenic complaints are all except:
A. Haloes around light
B. Tired eyes
C. Periodic bluring of vision
D. Constant blinking
44. Most common type of colour blindness is:
A. Protanopes
B. Deuteranopes
C. Tritanopes
D. None
45. In pupillary reflex nerve tested is:
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. Both 2nd and 3rd
D. 4th
46. In optic atrophy, the optic disc appears to pale is index of:
A. Atrophy of the nerve fibre
B. Loss of vasculature
C. Gliosis
D. All of the above
47. In case of anisocoria when 1% pilocarpine is instilled into the eye with abnormally dilated pupil, pupil remains dilated. Cause of anisocoria may be:
A. Adies pupil
B. Pharmacological blockage
C. Uncal herniation
D. Diabetic III cranial nerve palsy