MCQ Question on glaucoma and angle of anterior chamber

1. Normal aqueous production rate is about:

A. 2 l/min

B. 2.3 µl/min

C. 2.6 µl/min

D. 2.9 µl/min

2. Trabecular (conventional) outflow of aqueous humour accounts for:

A. 90 percent

B. 80 percent

C. 70 percent

D. 60 percent

3. Incidence of congenital glaucoma is:

A. 1 in 1000 births

B. 1 in 5000 births

C. 1 in 10,000 births

D. 1 in 34,000 births

4. In normal diurnal variation, intraocular pressure is:

A. Highest on awakening and lowest during evening

B. Lowest during morning and highest during evening

C. Highest in the morning and evening

D. Lowest in the morning and evening

5. Normal diurnal variation of intraocular pressure is:

A. 0-2 mm of Hg 

B. 2-3 mm of Hg 

C. 3-6 mm of Hg 

D. 6-8 mm of Hg

6. In indentation tonometry:

A. Plunger indents a hard eye more than a soft eye

B. Lower scale readings are obtained in high intraocular pressure

C. Low scleral rigidity gives high reading of intraocular pressure

D. All of the above

7. Retinal nerve fibres most sensitive to glaucomatous damage are:

A. Superior and inferior arcuate fibres

B. Macular fibres

C. Superior radiating fibres

D. Inferior radiating fibres

8. Incidence of primary open-angle glaucoma in population over 40 years of age is about:

A. 1 in 100

B. 1 in 200

C. 1 in 500

D. 1 in 1000

9. Sickle-shaped extension of blind spot is known as:

A. Bjerrum’s sign

B. Seidel’s sign 

C. Down’s sign

D. Baring of blind spot

10. Ocular associations of primary open-angle glaucoma include all except:

A. Central retinal vein occlusion

B. Central retinal artery occlusion

C. Retinal detachment

D. Retinitis pigmentosa

11. Vogt’s triad is indicative of:

A. Past attack of herpes zoster ophthalmicus

B. Past attack of acute-angle closure glaucoma 

C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome

D. Past attack of acute iridocyclitis

12. Glaukomflecken is a feature of:

A. Acute narrow-angle glaucoma

B. Pseudoexfoliative glaucoma

C. Juvenile glaucoma

D. Phacolytic glaucoma

13. In the incidence of primary angle closure glaucoma, male to female ratio is:

A. 1:1

B. 1:2 

C. 1:3 

D. 1:4

14. The earliest clinically significant field defect in primary open-angle glaucoma is:

A. Paracentral scotoma

B. Baring of blind spot

C. Seidel’s scotoma

D. Isopter contraction

15. All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except:

A. Intraocular tumour

B. Central retinal vein occlusion

C. Diabetic retinopathy

D. Central serous retinopathy

16. Krukenberg’s spindle seen in patients with pigmentary glaucoma refers to deposition of pigment on:

A. Trabecular meshwork (gonioscopic sign)

B. Back of cornea

C. Anterior surface of the lens 

D. All of the above

17. In Fincham’s test:

A. Glaucomatous halo remains intact

B. Halo due to immature cataract does not break into segments

C. Halo due to mucopurulent conjunctivitis is broken into segments

D. All of the above

18. All are the features of an acute attack of primary narrow-angle glaucoma except:

A. Intraocular pressure is raised up to 940-70 mm of Hg

B. Eye is red, painful and tender

C. Disc shows glaucomatous cupping

D. Fellow eye also shows shallow anterior chamber

19. In Indian population ratio of POAG : PACG is:

A. 4:1

B. 2:1

C. 1:1

D. 1:2 .

20. All of the following can precipitate the attack of narrow angle except:

A. Prolonged prone position

B. Mydriatics

C. Prolonged work in bright light

D. Emotional upsets

21. The most characteristic visual field change in primary open-angle glaucoma is:

A. Nerve fibre bundle defect

B. Enlargement of blind spot

C. Generalised constriction of field

D. Sector-shaped defects

22. All of the following are true about pigmentary glaucoma except:

A. It occurs more often in young myopic men

B. Iris transillumination defects are noted

C. It is associated with Krukenberg’s spindle

D. The intensity of pigment deposit in the angle is related to iris colour

23. Epinephrine:

A. Reduces aqueous production

B. Reduces outflow facility

C. Reduces aqueous production and increases outflow facility

D. Increases aqueous production and reduces outflow facility

24. Treatment of malignant glaucoma is:

A. Pilocarpine

B. Cyclocryotherapy

C. Vitreous aspiration

D. Trabeculectomy

25. Neovascular glaucoma may be associated with all of the following except:

A. Diabetes

B. Hypertension

C. Central retinal vein occlusion

D. Intraocular tumours

26. Primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with all of the following except:

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Myopia

C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Pars planitis

27. Cupping of the disc is not a feature of:

A. Buphthalmos

B. Chronic simple glaucoma

C. Acute congestive glaucoma

D. Megalocornea

28. Inverse glaucoma occurs in:

A. Spherophakia

B. Lenticonus

C. Subluxated lens

D. All of the above

29. Lowe’s syndrome is characterized by all except:

A. Glaucoma

B. Albuminuria

C. Glycosuria

D. Oligoammonuria

E. Retinal detachment

30. All the following can be seen in Axenfeld’s anomaly, except:

A. Posterior embryotoxon

B. Iris synechiae to Schwalbe’s line

C. Ectopia of the lens

D. Glaucoma

31. All the following are true concerning Rieger’s syndrome except:

A. Autosomal recessive inheritance

B. Glaucoma

C. The possible presence of facial, dental and osseous defects

D. The spectrum of Axenfeld’s anomaly and marked abnormal development of the iris mesoderm.

32. In chronic simple glaucoma the most common field defect is:

A. Arcuate field defect

B. Baring of blind spot

C. Bjerrum scotoma

D. Siedel’s sign

33. Treatment of malignant glaucoma includes all except:

A. Topical atropine

B. Topical pilocarpine

C. IV mannitol

D. Vitreous aspiration

34. The earliest change in glaucoma is:

A. Papilloedema

B. Hazy cornea

C. Baring of the blind spot

D. Sickle scotoma

35. Neovascular glaucoma can occur in all except:

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Hypertension

C. CRAO

D. CRVO

36. Coloured haloes are found in all except:

A. Pigmentary glaucoma

B. Acute-angle-closure glaucoma

C. Cataract

D. Uveitis

37. Secondary glaucoma following corneal perforation is due to:

A. Central anterior synechiae formation

B. Peripheral anterior synechiae

C. Intraocular haemorrhage

D. Angle recession

38. In haemolytic glaucoma the mechanisms are all except:

A. Siderosis of trabeculae

B. Deposition of haemosiderin

C. RBC clogging the trabeculae

D. Inflammation

39. The most reliable provocative test for angle-closure glaucoma is:

A. Homatropine mydriatic test

B. Mydriatic-miotic test

C. Water drinking test

D. Dark room test

40. Which of the following types of senile cataract is the most notorious to produce glaucoma:

A. Incipient cataract

B. Lamellar cataract

C. Hypermature Morgagnian cataract

D. Intumescent cataract

41. All of the following anatomical changes will predispose to primary-angle-closure glaucoma except:

A. Small cornea

B. Flat cornea

C. Anterior chamber shallow

D. Short axial length of eyeball

42. Argon laser trabeculoplasty is used in:

A. Closed-angle glaucoma

B. Primary open-angle glaucoma

C. Neovascular glaucoma

D. Aphakic glaucoma

43. In buphthalmos, lens is:

A. Anteroposterior flat

B. Small

C. Large

D. None of the above

44. First sign seen in open-angle glaucoma is:

A. Arcuate scotoma

B. Extension above blind spot

C. Roene’s nasal step

D. Siedel’s scotoma

45. Congenital glaucoma presents as:

A. Microphthalmos

B. Photophobia

C. Leucocoria (white reflex)

D. Pain

46. In a hypertensive patient with glaucoma which of the following is not used:

A. Dipivefrine

B. Alpha blocker

C. Alpha agonist

D. Laser trabeculoplasty

47. Schwalbe’s ring corresponds to:

A. Corneal endothelium

B. Descemet’s membrane

C. Schlemm’s canal

D. Ciliary body

48. A 75-year old patient present with deterioration of vision. On examination the pupillary reflex is observed to be sluggish and the intraocular pressure is normal. Optic disc evaluation shows a large and deep cup and primarily shows paracentral scotomas. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Primary narrow angle glaucoma

B. Normal tension glaucoma

C. Neovascular glaucoma

D. Absolute glaucoma

49. Treatment of primary open angle glaucoma:

A. Timolol maleate

B. Atropine

C. Acetazolamide

D. Prostaglandin analogue

50. True about primary angle closure glaucoma:

A More common in females

B. Shallow anterior chamber in a tank

C. Deep anterior chamber is a risk factor

D. Shorter diameter of cornea is a predisposing factor

E. Common in myopes

51. Intractable secondary glaucoma is seen in:

A. Diffuse iris melanoma

B. Nodular iris melanoma

C. Melanocytic deposits in anterior part of iris

D. Melanocyte proliferation in posterior oveal tissue.